Well this hand has been bothering me all week so...

Im in the SB folded to me and I call with Q5 (hey they were suited)
BB checks and we are the only two in the pot.

BB is a very aggressive player, raises with any paint preflop. Tends not to slow play and has built the biggest pots of the night in a .25/.50NL game, he has taken down a couple of $60-70 pots with KJ unsuited for top pair, JJ on a board of ATX so he has some aggression but these pots have both been against someone he plays with all the time.

Flop comes Q54 rainbow, I bet out $10 (yes an over bet but it was deliberate for image).

Heres what Im not expecting, I get called.

Turn brings a 2 and I bet $10 again.

He raises me $55.

What do you do?






I folded. I thought he may have had a set. So I laid it down.

Upon further review, here's what I am thinking now, this should have been my process at the table; anything to add?

He did not raise me preflop and had the opportunity. I have not seen him slow play anything, and I have a very aggressive reputation. If he had a pair even 4's or 5's, I think he would have raised me making me pay for the flop. So I should be able to rule out pairs, even big paint AQ, AK Im's sure I would have seen a raise, and probably would have seen a raise with QT, Q8.

That leaves 63, 67, 23, 45, 42, 52, Q5 Q4, or Q2, maybe QT, Q8, A4, A3 but without a raise preflop probably not.

All of these hands I beat, with the acception of 63, or A3.

So if he had the hands that beat me 63 or A3 then why the raise of $45 on the turn. I really don't suspect a bluff here, everything is telling me he thinks is hand is good, doesnt want a call but, but he aint bullshitting.

What was he afraid of me drawing to? I haven't shown any long shot bets with limited outs. My pounding with the $10 on the flop, then on turn he has to give me credit for something. I have been playing agressive and tight, showing only called hands with AA, AQ, KK so my image is very good and this is our first time playing together, so what does he think I have?

My conclusion is tha the thinks I have a Q with a non paired higher kicker, 89TJ. So he is afraid my kicker would hit and right now he thinks he has the best hand.

So I folded and I think I was wrong in my process when I palyed the hand seeing a low set of 4's or 5's.

What else should I be looking for here? What else should the process be?

BTW he had 42 for bottom two pair. I would have cashed in big time, so that's why it's bugging me.

Comments

  • As usual, I will fire my thoughts as I make a “cold read.”
    Im in the SB folded to me and I call with Q5 (hey they were suited)
    BB checks and we are the only two in the pot.

    BB is a very aggressive player, raises with any paint preflop. Tends not to slow play and has built the biggest pots of the night in a .25/.50NL game, he has taken down a couple of $60-70 pots with KJ unsuited for top pair, JJ on a board of ATX so he has some aggression but these pots have both been against someone he plays with all the time.

    This is not the kind of player that you want to take a weak hand like Q-5 up against when he has position. Having said that, I think the limp in is fine. If he pumps you, you fold, no problem.
    Flop comes Q54 rainbow, I bet out $10 (yes an over bet but it was deliberate for image).

    Heres what Im not expecting, I get called.

    Hooray! Your overbet has worked perfectly. He has distrusted your bet. He has a hand that he thinks is best, but you know that it very probably is not.
    Turn brings a 2 and I bet $10 again.

    He raises me $55.

    What do you do?

    Call. In the blink of an eye. What hands will you give him?

    (1) A bluff. It sounds possible. You describe him as a player who is “very aggressive” who “tends not to slowplay.” What hands beat you? A set. Q-Q, 5-5, 4-4, or 2-2 would seem to have drawn a raise from him pre-flop. A-3. Maybe, but he called $10 on the flop with a gutshot and one overcard? Doesn’t seem likely.
    (2) A huge hand. Possible. But, given my thoughts on bluffing it seems a long way from certain.
    (3) A hand that he THINKS is the best, but isn’t. How about Q-2. He called on the flop because your bet looked suspicious and then he hit his kicker. You backed off on the turn, showing weakness, and so now he moves on you. Seems possible.
    I folded. I thought he may have had a set. So I laid it down.

    Upon further review, here's what I am thinking now, this should have been my process at the table; anything to add?

    Oops… Well, lets see how your thinking compares to mine.
    He did not raise me preflop and had the opportunity. I have not seen him slow play anything, and I have a very aggressive reputation. If he had a pair even 4's or 5's, I think he would have raised me making me pay for the flop. So I should be able to rule out pairs, even big paint AQ, AK Im's sure I would have seen a raise, and probably would have seen a raise with QT, Q8.

    That leaves 63, 67, 23, 45, 42, 52, Q5 Q4, or Q2, maybe QT, Q8, A4, A3 but without a raise preflop probably not.

    All of these hands I beat, with the acception of 63, or A3.

    So if he had the hands that beat me 63 or A3 then why the raise of $45 on the turn. I really don't suspect a bluff here, everything is telling me he thinks is hand is good, doesnt want a call but, but he aint bullshitting.

    What was he afraid of me drawing to? I haven't shown any long shot bets with limited outs. My pounding with the $10 on the flop, then on turn he has to give me credit for something. I have been playing agressive and tight, showing only called hands with AA, AQ, KK so my image is very good and this is our first time playing together, so what does he think I have?

    Well, you did not raise pre-flop so he is NOT giving you credit for a big hand either. I am guessing he thinks you have top pair and he is happy to win it right now as opposed to you getting the river for free.
    My conclusion is tha the thinks I have a Q with a non paired higher kicker, 89TJ. So he is afraid my kicker would hit and right now he thinks he has the best hand.

    So I folded and I think I was wrong in my process when I palyed the hand seeing a low set of 4's or 5's.

    What else should I be looking for here? What else should the process be?

    BTW he had 42 for bottom two pair. I would have cashed in big time, so that's why it's bugging me.

    I think your post game analysis looks about right.

    If you haven’t read Harrington’s new book, do. He is very good at explaining the steps to go through.

    (1) What are my pot odds? In this case, you are being offered a call of $45 into a pot of $86. Call it 2-1.
    (2) What is the range of hands that I will put him on assign some probability to that range. That’s what we did already, more or less.
    (3) Decide wether to call. I favour calling.

    And, in my own case I like to add step (4) Is the monkey mind going blank?
  • That was a classic hand! One of many that night...

    Cam showed a couple of 2nd or 3rd best hands after he collected the pot. Verrrrrrrrrrry aggressive.

    Considering the buy-in was 40, a 55 bet is pretty significant. The way he was playing it could have been a complete bluff or the stone cold nuts. With your hand and knowing what I know now, I'd call in a second. At the time, a real toss-up.

    Ain't poker fun?
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