Cannon Extraction - What is optimal re-raise?
Ok, I haven't posted a hand in decades so here it goes. I was playing at my favourite 2/5 'home game' on the weekend. The buy-in max is typically $1k but a player can rebuy for whatever they are down if they want.
Villain 1 is a really bad loose player who is down about $1.5k in about 1 hour of play. He will call any re-raise pre-flop with any two cards. He only has $280 behind. Villain 2 is a fairly tight aggressive player but he often tries to makes moves and typically has losing sessions (he has me covered).
Villain #1 has been raising probably 75% of the hands pre-flop $50+. He is first to act and makes it $40. It gets to Villain #2 and he re-raises to $280. His re-raise is basically to get heads up with V#1 as he knows he can have any two cards and he will likely call. I look down and have KK. I have about $800 behind and decide I want to get heads up with Villian #1 given the dead money in the pot. I don't think V#2 would bet $280 with AA given there are still players behind and he would want more action with this hand. So, I conclude that I must be ahead at this point.
I decide to push all-in and get heads up with V#1. V#1 calls (as expected), and V#2 folds.
Afterwards I realized that pushing may not have been the optimal play given V#2 likely had a decent starting hand (maybe big pair or AK/AQ). What would have been your play in this situation, trying to extract more money out of V#2? A call may have been alright as this player would typically come out betting on the flop anyways. Athough, I only have $520 behind with just a call so I may want to just get it all in the middle now.
After the hand, V#2 admitted he had pocket 10s and the flop came 9 high.
Villain 1 is a really bad loose player who is down about $1.5k in about 1 hour of play. He will call any re-raise pre-flop with any two cards. He only has $280 behind. Villain 2 is a fairly tight aggressive player but he often tries to makes moves and typically has losing sessions (he has me covered).
Villain #1 has been raising probably 75% of the hands pre-flop $50+. He is first to act and makes it $40. It gets to Villain #2 and he re-raises to $280. His re-raise is basically to get heads up with V#1 as he knows he can have any two cards and he will likely call. I look down and have KK. I have about $800 behind and decide I want to get heads up with Villian #1 given the dead money in the pot. I don't think V#2 would bet $280 with AA given there are still players behind and he would want more action with this hand. So, I conclude that I must be ahead at this point.
I decide to push all-in and get heads up with V#1. V#1 calls (as expected), and V#2 folds.
Afterwards I realized that pushing may not have been the optimal play given V#2 likely had a decent starting hand (maybe big pair or AK/AQ). What would have been your play in this situation, trying to extract more money out of V#2? A call may have been alright as this player would typically come out betting on the flop anyways. Athough, I only have $520 behind with just a call so I may want to just get it all in the middle now.
After the hand, V#2 admitted he had pocket 10s and the flop came 9 high.
Comments
or you could just be happy with the 280 in dead money
Mark
Following that? Tell me any god damned poker strategy fucking thread / theory / masturbatory dream that is a better case scenario?
Mark
Your shove was the correct way to get max value, V2 incorrectly folded, imo.
So you agree with the shove approach? Maybe playing too much lately at Woodbine has created an internal 45 second clock and I should have given the shove a little more thought.
Shoving is correct. You're skirting the line of FPS (fancy play syndrome).
Mark
Are 78 soooooted.....and are 87 soooooted......well played