QQ in 3 bet pot
Do we bet on the flop here??? This guy was running 46/8 thru first 13 hands with no 3 bets.
Poker Stars, $4 + $0.40 NL Hold'em Tournament, 15/30 Blinds, 8 Players
LeggoPoker.com - Hand History Converter
MP2: 4,368
Hero (CO): 3,255
BTN: 2,550
SB: 2,970
BB: 2,055
UTG: 3,000
UTG+1: 2,910
MP1: 3,000
Pre-Flop: (45) Q
Q
dealt to Hero (CO)
3 folds, MP2 calls 30, Hero raises to 120, BTN folds, SB calls 105, BB raises to 525, MP2 folds, Hero calls 405, SB folds
Flop: (1,200) 9
6 3 (2 Players)
BB checks, Hero ???
Poker Stars, $4 + $0.40 NL Hold'em Tournament, 15/30 Blinds, 8 Players
LeggoPoker.com - Hand History Converter
MP2: 4,368
Hero (CO): 3,255
BTN: 2,550
SB: 2,970
BB: 2,055
UTG: 3,000
UTG+1: 2,910
MP1: 3,000
Pre-Flop: (45) Q
Q dealt to Hero (CO)3 folds, MP2 calls 30, Hero raises to 120, BTN folds, SB calls 105, BB raises to 525, MP2 folds, Hero calls 405, SB folds
Flop: (1,200) 9
6 3 (2 Players)BB checks, Hero ???
Comments
hero bets flop..something ak aq kq will float.....
hero jams on check raise.
Hmmm, 4 bet was my first thoughts, but since its early and I haven't splashed around much yet I figured that I would get a lot of respect for a 4 bet, and mostly all the hands I crush will fold.
On flop, do we try to make any sense of why he wouldnt cbet? This is something that baffles me sometimes cus most ppl cbet outrageously wide these days. I did bet (small), and he did check jam. Def did not have what I expected him to have with that line though.
If you lose the hand, its a cooler.
flop changes our equity from pre <.<
This. So many of what I like to call 3-tards (Oh look I have an Ace
yeah not ever folding this.... more or less was wondering if Im folding too many of his hands by 4 betting. Just want to make sure im getting enough value from these hands... is all.
Dj, this is not a 180. its an mtt - but w/e
anyways he showed up with T6s ^-^
Ya not worried about the result. Helps that I held though
also about this - a 4 bet pre is a jam here imo. Villian only started the hand with 2k and already put in a 1/4 of that. I guess that helps the argument for 4 bet jamming since hes likely feeling committed most of the time.
I think I just reviewed this hand and thought, man Ive been jamming these spots for a while. I wonder how often they have T6s and just fold to my jam?
nope ^^'
really? He has about zero fold equity?
After he checked, I bet flop for like ~450, and he jammed his 1500....
spit out his pre flop range....
and his cr range ....
lets look at that...?
k give me a few hrs, will do this from home.
His ACTUAL range is ATC...do you mean his perceived range or a solid player's range?
i think what you mean here is if we see villains in general show up with any cards like 97o ...j2s......T2o or whatever....that if we are up against a random then we can put him on atc.....
but really its more correct i think to give him a reasonable range like AA KK QQ AK....etc. keep it wide to like 99 or something....and then add a few wildcard hands knowing that villains will come up with air 'sometimes'.......
not sure if thats what you meant but i think alot of people skew the math
that way.....
edit: i don't have a source for that tho...
some how we dont put villian on AA, KK?
If this is a higher buy in mtt, i would tread very carefully as played.
folding ladies is pretty tough, but has to be done sometimes, especially in higher stake MTT's
We ship it in, and he has us dominated and we say "gg" when we are pwnt and move on?
noted.
yes that was what I was thinking too, this maybe?
TT+,AQs+,JTs,T8s,98s,96s,AQo+
I am saying that THIS player's ACTUAL range is ATC (obv after the cards are flipped)...but if you want to assign an average player's range for this situation then that's different
ps -- I raise or 3 bet this spot all the time in live cash games from the blinds to build a pot to steal HU on later streets or to take it down pre...villain's post-flop line is insanely stupid
equity
Hand 0: 44.962% { TT+, AQs+, AQo+ }
Hand 1: 55.038% { QcQd }
*plus you can add some random air and expect to be somewhere around 60%
Postflop vs his cr range which won't really change much here because hes gonna check raise most of his over cards most of the time and same with over pairs......
Board: 3c 9h 6h
equity
Hand 0: 38.416% { TT+, AQs+, AQo+ }
Hand 1: 61.584% { QcQd }
If we think maybe villain doesn't check raise ak aq tt and jj as much then we are closer to a flip
Postflop
Board: 3c 9h 6h
equity
Hand 0: 48.753% { QQ+, JcJd, JdJh, JhJs, AKs, AhQh, AsQs, AcKd, AcKh, AcKs,
AdKh, AdKs, AhKs, AcQd, AcQh, AcQs, AdQh, AdQs, AhQs }
Hand 1: 51.247% { QcQd }
But we still haven't accounted for the fact that villain shows air here sometimes and that theres is already money in the pot for a better deal on our money.
*obv villain can have 96s or something silly or a set but against his range...esp knowing its that wide we are still happy to get it in i think...
Is this right though? If playing with proper BR MGMT shouldn't the buy in amount have no impact on the choice of play? Or are you more pointing to the fact that higher buy-in generally means higher quality villains?