Question about a all in.
I just came from a local tournament and I was looking into something that happened and wondered if this was right. I was the big blind (200/400) with a chipstack of 1900 after I put my blind in. Someone raised to 800 and I went to call. I had 3 green (500's) and 4 blues (100's) in my hand I had all the chips in my hand and I went to call the 400 and hadn't said a word. I laid down the four blues to call and the man said call. I said call what? I haven't announced anything. They said because I had my chips in my had and made a notion like I was moving all in that he was calling me all in. I hadn't said all in or laid the chips on the table I was simply counting out the blues. I actually was ahead of the guy (pocket 6's vs. A7) and lost the hand as a 7 came on the flop. I was just wondering if that really was a all-in.
Comments
If this is what occurred, then Villain acted prematurely, as Hero had not declared his action. Having said that, hero should be a little more sensible and verbalize his action clearly, or leave his stack alone, and count out his chips before moving them forward.
I see this all the time in the last couple of years. I'm with you, once you move your entire stack forward whether in you hand or not it should be a bet, and is in some casinos. However the opp should have waited for action to complete before acting himself. If this is the scenario, both sound inexperienced...