Odds of 2 pair by the river?

What are the odds of an unpaired holdem hand hitting 2 pair by the river?

Comments

  • Is this post a legitimate question? If you are unpaired it depends whats on the board already.
  • First, do you mean EXACTLY 2 pair, or 2 pair or better?

    Next, the answer is different for 56s compared to J8o, so you have to be more specific.

    Finally, do you only want answers that include the cards in your hand... Ex. Holding 67o board AJJ99

    Edit: Will post answer later this week if no one else anwers this... Its a very non-trivial answer.
  • Here's the solution for 78s making exactly 2 pair by the river. I wrote this fairly quickly so there may be an error somewhere but the answer seems very close to what I would expect....

    Let's say you have 78s... you can end up with exactly 2 pair with a board in the following configurations

    (ignoring suits (for now))

    i) 78abc
    ii) 78aab
    iii) xaabc
    iv) xaabb
    v) aabbc

    where a, b, c are different ranks and x is a 7 or 8

    Case i)
    There are 3 * 3 * 11c3 * 4 * 4 * 4 ways to make this board = 95040
    ... however some of these will also be straights or flushes, so we must subtract them.
    Straight Flush... ways to make a SF = (3 * 3 * 4) + (3 * 4) = 48
    Flushes... ways to make a F = (3 * 3 * 11c3) + (3 * 11c3) = 1980 ... this number will include all the SF so we must subtract 48 = 1932
    Straights... ways to make a S = 3 * 3 * 4 * 4 * 4 * 4 = 2304 ... this number also will include the SF so we must also subtract 48 here too = 2256

    so there are exactly 95040 - 48 - 1932 - 2256 = 90804 to make exactly 2 pair on this board

    Case ii)
    There are 3 * 3 * 11 * 6 * 10 * 4 ways to make this board = 23760
    Straights and flushes are not possible on this board so we are done with case ii

    Case iii)
    There are 6 * 11 * 6 * 10c2 * 4 * 4 ways to make this board = 285120
    ... and again, some of these will also be straights or flushes, so we must subtract them.
    Straight Flush... ways to make a SF = 6 * 3 * 4 = 72
    Flushes... ways to make a F = 6 * 11 * 3 * 10c2 = 8910 ... this number will include all the SF so we must subtract 72 = 8838
    Straights... ways to make a S = 6 * 4 * 6 * 4 * 4 = 2304 ... this number also will include the SF so we must also subtract 72 here too = 2232

    so there are exactly 285120 - 72 - 8838 - 2232 = 273978 to make exactly 2 pair on this board

    Case iv)
    There are 6 * 11c2 * 6 * 6 ways to make this board = 11880
    Straights and flushes are not possible on this board so we are done with case iv

    Case v)
    There are 11c2 * 6 * 6 * 9 * 4 ways to make this board = 71280
    ... and again, some of these will also be straights or flushes, so we must subtract them.
    Straight Flush... ways to make a SF = 3 * 3 * 4 = 36
    Flushes... ways to make a F = 11c2 * 3 * 3 * 9 = 4455 ... this number will include all the SF so we must subtract 36 = 4419
    Straights... ways to make a S = 4 * 6 * 6 * 4 = 576 ... this number also will include the SF so we must also subtract 36 here too = 540

    so there are exactly 71280 - 36 - 4419 - 540 = 66285 ways to make exactly 2 pair on this board

    So adding all these cases together = 90804 + 23760 + 273978 + 11880 + 66285 = 466707

    Total number of boards = 50c5 = 2118760

    So the odds of ending up with exactly 2 pair when starting with 78s = 466707 / 2118760 = ~ .22027
  • Sorry, I missed all the responses somehow.

    What I mean is pairing both of your hole cards on an unpaired board -- ie j8 on a jxyz8 board.

    So you having AK on a Awxyz board -- what are the odds of a single opponent having 2 pair (I know this is a bit different from the J8 example as the A is in your hand).

    Answers?

    Thanks
  • Graham wrote: »
    Is this post a legitimate question? If you are unpaired it depends whats on the board already.

    Sorry, clarified above.
  • MH, do you mind running the math for flopping trips with a starting pair. Thanks.
  • So the odds of ending up with exactly 2 pair when starting with 78s = 466707 / 2118760 = ~ .22027
    methinks you'd better check your math. no chance you have a 22% chance of hitting 2pr by the river.
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  • pkrfce9 wrote: »
    methinks you'd better check your math. no chance you have a 22% chance of hitting 2pr by the river.

    I eagerly await a rebuttal proof!
  • ok i've lost the ability to edit my posts. even the ones in which i'm wrong. oops!

    sorry mickey. you are correct. the number seemed huge but i guess not. i'll try to post the numbers my software came up with but i'm having problems here with 2 separate computers so i don't think it is my problem...
  • my bad, mickey.

    1.7m hands ak vs j8
  • j8 hits 2pr and no better about 390k times but loses about 160k of them. hard to say how many of those 2pr are paired board with a j or 8 though

    so ya, around 20 percent. good job mickey
  • pokerJAH wrote: »
    MH, do you mind running the math for flopping trips with a starting pair. Thanks.

    There are 48c3 = 17296 flops that do have none of the remaining cards of your rank. There are 46 flops that contain both your cards to give you quads... so there must be 2258 flops that contain exactly 1 of that cards needed to make trips... There are 50c3 = 19600 flops so 2258/19600 = .1152 or about ~1 in 8.7

    Pkrfce... no prob man.
  • so there must be 2258 flops that contain exactly 1 of that cards needed to make trips
    my apologies, master. is it 2258 or 2256. i have 2*48c2
  • yes grasshopper you are correct... In my post the numbers should be 48 for quads and 2256 for trips... typing on an iPod has its draw backs. ;)
  • Ehrm...so the odds of J8 pairing both hole cards on an unpaired board is ~22%??

    J8 on Jxyz8 board?

    Not sure if the 22% is including all the paired boards, etc.

    Thanks
  • GTA Poker wrote: »
    Sorry, I missed all the responses somehow.

    What I mean is pairing both of your hole cards on an unpaired board -- ie j8 on a jxyz8 board.

    Getting back to the original question....

    To calculate what percentage of time j8 will hit a jxyz8 board....
    (Assuming xyz are not a J or an 8)

    = 3 * 3 * 44 * 43 * 42 * 5! / 3! * (46! / 50!)
    = 5.63%
    GTA Poker wrote: »
    So you having AK on a Awxyz board -- what are the odds of a single opponent having 2 pair (I know this is a bit different from the J8 example as the A is in your hand).

    Answers?

    Thanks

    There are (45 * 44 / 2) or 890 different hands that your opponent can have.

    There are 4 different hands with an Ace that have hit 2 pair (Aw, Ax, Ay, Az)
    There are 6 different ways that he can have each of these hands.

    There are 6 different hands without and Ace that have hit 2 pair (wx, wy, wz, xy, xz, yz)
    There are 9 different ways that he can have each of these hands.

    So, the answer is (4 * 6 + 6 * 9) / 890 or 7.88%
  • DataMn wrote: »
    Getting back to the original question....

    To calculate what percentage of time j8 will hit a jxyz8 board....
    (Assuming xyz are not a J or an 8)

    = 3 * 3 * 44 * 43 * 42 * 5! / 3! * (46! / 50!)
    = 5.63%



    There are (45 * 44 / 2) or 890 different hands that your opponent can have.

    There are 4 different hands with an Ace that have hit 2 pair (Aw, Ax, Ay, Az)
    There are 6 different ways that he can have each of these hands.

    There are 6 different hands without and Ace that have hit 2 pair (wx, wy, wz, xy, xz, yz)
    There are 9 different ways that he can have each of these hands.

    So, the answer is (4 * 6 + 6 * 9) / 890 or 7.88%

    TY, I will assume the math is right pending any rebuttals:)
  • GTA Poker wrote: »
    Ehrm...so the odds of J8 pairing both hole cards on an unpaired board is ~22%??

    J8 on Jxyz8 board?

    Not sure if the 22% is including all the paired boards, etc.

    Thanks

    No... ~22% is for you to make exactly 2 pair anyway. 2 pair using both hole cards would be covered by only case i in the original solution I gave for the example 78s. It would be closer to 90804 / 2118760 = 4.29%
    DataMn wrote:
    Getting back to the original question....

    To calculate what percentage of time j8 will hit a jxyz8 board....
    (Assuming xyz are not a J or an :cool:

    = 3 * 3 * 44 * 43 * 42 * 5! / 3! * (46! / 50!)
    = 5.63%

    This answer includes boards like J8AAA and J8KK3 and 789TJ and flush boards and even straight flush boards.
    DataMn wrote:
    There are (45 * 44 / 2) or 890 different hands that your opponent can have.

    There are 4 different hands with an Ace that have hit 2 pair (Aw, Ax, Ay, Az)
    There are 6 different ways that he can have each of these hands.

    There are 6 different hands without and Ace that have hit 2 pair (wx, wy, wz, xy, xz, yz)
    There are 9 different ways that he can have each of these hands.

    So, the answer is (4 * 6 + 6 * 9) / 890 or 7.88%

    45*44/2 = 990 different hands.
    although 7.88% is correct for (4 * 6 + 6 * 9) / 990

    This value would be an upper bound assuming your opponent would equally play all possible variations of wxyz... not very likely on any board, and very, very unlikely on a board of AJ742... unless he was the BB and you limped AK.
  • There are 48c3 = 17296 flops that do have none of the remaining cards of your rank. There are 46 flops that contain both your cards to give you quads... so there must be 2258 flops that contain exactly 1 of that cards needed to make trips... There are 50c3 = 19600 flops so 2258/19600 = .1152 or about ~1 in 8.7

    Pkrfce... no prob man.

    this is sick; thanks for the effort
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