- Edited
Game information:
$0.5/$.10 blinds on WSOP Ontario
100BBs for villain and myself
No real information on villain but appears nitty (9% VPIP on limited sample size)
All folds up to button
Villain on button calls to $.10 (no bet)
Sb folds
I check on bb with Q9 of suited clubs (I didn’t raise because I’m OOP so figure I get free flop with a hand of decent potential)
Flop:JH, 10C, 8S I’ve hit a well disguised straight so I check to trap villain bets 50%, I call
Turn:AC, ok that’s not great if villain has KQ but why didn’t they bet preflop? I bet 75% with flush draw possible and second nutted straight already
Flop:JC, I’ve hit a flush, I bet 75%, villain reraised to about 4.5 times my bet,I call villain shows JD10H which gives them a full house. Ugh!
Ok, so first of all why would villain not bet on button?
Turn card made me a tad nervous but I’m trying to build pot and figured it is very unlikely they have the only hand that has me beat at this point which would be a KQ and how do they not bet with that hand preflop in the first place? Flop brings flush and I’m thinking does villain really have the KC and another C which is the only better possible flush ?(and again, if villain had that then why did they not bet preflop from button to at least steal?). My mind is saying maybe they had a weak hand with 2 C in the first place which would explain not betting so they think their weak flush is good and that I’m on a straight. To me it also did not make sense that they could have 8’s, 10’s because again surely they would be that preflop from the button?!? Even jack 10 off suit which is what villain had had to be worthy of betting from the button or is someone is super nitty maybe they just fold it but surely not just call preflop from button? I honestly don’t get the logic of this player and don’t feel he played the fundamentals correctly at all. Am I wrong? The fact that a nit with less than 10% VPIP would even play a hand this way boggles my mind. A passive 50% VPIP, 10%PFR fish, yes that makes sense but not for a nit. They are supposed to play only the best hands and never passively call especially from the button.
Based on the above, did I really play this poorly or did the villain? Should I have jammed on turn (in hindsight of course “yes” is the answer given what happened on river because I could have cashed out if he called my jam)? Also, was it really a bad call when I was reraised given all the information above?
$0.5/$.10 blinds on WSOP Ontario
100BBs for villain and myself
No real information on villain but appears nitty (9% VPIP on limited sample size)
All folds up to button
Villain on button calls to $.10 (no bet)
Sb folds
I check on bb with Q9 of suited clubs (I didn’t raise because I’m OOP so figure I get free flop with a hand of decent potential)
Flop:JH, 10C, 8S I’ve hit a well disguised straight so I check to trap villain bets 50%, I call
Turn:AC, ok that’s not great if villain has KQ but why didn’t they bet preflop? I bet 75% with flush draw possible and second nutted straight already
Flop:JC, I’ve hit a flush, I bet 75%, villain reraised to about 4.5 times my bet,I call villain shows JD10H which gives them a full house. Ugh!
Ok, so first of all why would villain not bet on button?
Turn card made me a tad nervous but I’m trying to build pot and figured it is very unlikely they have the only hand that has me beat at this point which would be a KQ and how do they not bet with that hand preflop in the first place? Flop brings flush and I’m thinking does villain really have the KC and another C which is the only better possible flush ?(and again, if villain had that then why did they not bet preflop from button to at least steal?). My mind is saying maybe they had a weak hand with 2 C in the first place which would explain not betting so they think their weak flush is good and that I’m on a straight. To me it also did not make sense that they could have 8’s, 10’s because again surely they would be that preflop from the button?!? Even jack 10 off suit which is what villain had had to be worthy of betting from the button or is someone is super nitty maybe they just fold it but surely not just call preflop from button? I honestly don’t get the logic of this player and don’t feel he played the fundamentals correctly at all. Am I wrong? The fact that a nit with less than 10% VPIP would even play a hand this way boggles my mind. A passive 50% VPIP, 10%PFR fish, yes that makes sense but not for a nit. They are supposed to play only the best hands and never passively call especially from the button.
Based on the above, did I really play this poorly or did the villain? Should I have jammed on turn (in hindsight of course “yes” is the answer given what happened on river because I could have cashed out if he called my jam)? Also, was it really a bad call when I was reraised given all the information above?