pkrfce9;173199 wrotewith that, does it not polarize villain #1's holdings to be either much better or much worse than my hand?
Your hand, on that board, polarizes anyones holdings to be much better or worse than your. Either they have a boat, or just 2 pair. There's only 1 card out there that chops with your hand.
pkrfce9;173199 wroteif i'm getting about 1.4:1 on my money do i need to be 40% sure he is betting a worse hand to justify a call? or 60% sure i'm beat to justify a fold?
If you're trying to maximize EV, yes.
pkrfce9;173199 wrote i think there is a very small chance he's got Ace-rag for the flopped full house, he may have turned a FH with a small pair or maybe he turned or rivered 2pr or the FH?
Of course he
might have that.
pkrfce9;173199 wrotein my mind there was also the chance he was simply trying to bully a couple of players who are unlikely to call a big bet without something very close to the nuts.
By your description of him, it sounds like he'd do that more than 60% of the time in this spot.
pkrfce9;173199 wrotedo other factors warrant consideration here - it is a 5-handed game, soon to be breaking up, villain #1 is down a bit this game. (he also lost about 200xBBs to me the last time we played.) villain #1 has come dangerously close to pot-commiting himself in the event villain#2 decides to push.
A played who sticks 80BB into a pot of 35BB typically has little concept of being pot-commited.
/g2